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Old    SupraSteve (suprasteve)      Join Date: Nov 2004       01-31-2008, 1:40 PM Reply   
I have what is probably a fairly simple question for you audio-heads.......

if i have 2, 4 Ohm speakers and a 2 channel amp and i bridge the amp so that each speaker is bridged on the amp, what kind of load will the amp see it as (2 ohm, 4 ohm)?? if that doesn't make sense i can further explain or draw it out...
Old    rodney (azwakekid)      Join Date: Apr 2005       01-31-2008, 2:23 PM Reply   
well either a 2 or 8 ohm loan depends on how you wire it
Old    Steve Oh (olskooltige)      Join Date: Mar 2007       01-31-2008, 2:26 PM Reply   
Use a wizard.
http://www.rockfordfosgate.com/rftech/woofer_wizard.asp
Old    atloutbackv            01-31-2008, 2:28 PM Reply   
if you only have 2 4 ohm speakers you will just run the 2 ch amp in stereo. you will see no gain in bridging the amp.
Old    SupraSteve (suprasteve)      Join Date: Nov 2004       01-31-2008, 2:32 PM Reply   
thanks guys!! thats what i needed to know.
Old    Scott (pdqwrx)      Join Date: Jul 2007       01-31-2008, 11:13 PM Reply   
Actually, A bridged stereo amp see's half of the measured impedance per channel. So, your two 4 ohm speakers wired in parallel would be a measured two ohm load at the amp terminals but each channel of the amp would see half of that or a 1 ohm load per channel. If you wire them in series, the amp would see a 8 ohm load and each channel would see a 4 ohm load or the same load as running it in stereo. Check your amps specks to see if it will handle a 1 ohm load per channel. Most full range amps wont.

Good luck
Scott

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